NEET UG · Medical MCQs
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Physics
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Practice questions
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Questions from the Revisable question bank, grouped by subject, with the chapter shown on each question. Pick an answer, then open “Show answer” to check it against the explanation.
100 questions across 4 subjects. Spotted a mistake? Let us know.
Botany
25 questions
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Which one of the following phases of growth is characterized by the highest rate of increase in dry mass and cell number?
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Answer: B. Exponential (log) phase
The exponential or log phase is marked by rapid cell division and enlargement, resulting in the maximum rate of increase in biomass.
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Which one of the following statements correctly distinguishes essential elements from beneficial elements?
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Answer: B. Essential elements are indispensable for completion of the plant life cycle.
Essential elements satisfy the criteria proposed by Arnon and Stout, including the requirement that the plant cannot complete its life cycle in their absence. Beneficial elements may enhance growth but are not indispensable.
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A plant is grown in a nutrient solution containing all essential elements except iron. Which physiological process is expected to be affected most directly?
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Answer: B. Electron transport during photosynthesis and respiration
Iron is an essential component of cytochromes and ferredoxin involved in electron transport during both photosynthesis and respiration. Although it is required for chlorophyll synthesis, it is not a constituent of chlorophyll.
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Which one of the following pigments has the highest abundance among the chlorophyll pigments present in higher plants?
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Answer: B. Chlorophyll a
Chlorophyll a is the most abundant chlorophyll pigment in higher plants. It serves as the chief photosynthetic pigment and is present both in the antenna complexes and reaction centres.
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Which one of the following is the primary function of the root system in flowering plants?
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Answer: B. Absorption of water and minerals from the soil
The root system primarily anchors the plant and absorbs water and mineral nutrients from the soil. In some plants, roots also store food and synthesize plant growth regulators.
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A seedling loses its primary root shortly after germination, following which several roots arise from the basal region of the stem. Which type of root system will eventually develop?
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Answer: B. Fibrous root system
When the primary root is short-lived, numerous roots arise from the base of the stem, giving rise to a fibrous root system, a characteristic feature of monocotyledonous plants.
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During the exponential phase of plant growth, the increase in size is directly proportional to:
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Answer: B. The amount of living tissue already present
During exponential growth, the rate of increase is proportional to the existing living biomass. As the amount of living tissue increases, the growth rate also increases.
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Who proposed the Cell Theory?
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Answer: B. Schleiden and Schwann
Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann proposed the Cell Theory in 1838 and 1839 respectively. Virchow later modified it by stating that all cells arise from pre-existing cells.
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Which statement is NOT a part of the original Cell Theory proposed by Schleiden and Schwann?
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Answer: C. All cells arise from pre-existing cells
The statement 'All cells arise from pre-existing cells' was added later by Rudolf Virchow and was not part of the original Cell Theory.
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During glycolysis, how many molecules of NADH are formed from one molecule of glucose?
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Answer: B. 2
During glycolysis, oxidation of two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate results in the formation of two molecules of NADH per molecule of glucose.
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Which one of the following accessory pigments is oxygen-containing and appears yellow in colour?
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Answer: B. Xanthophyll
Xanthophylls are yellow oxygen-containing carotenoids that function as accessory pigments by harvesting light energy and protecting the photosynthetic apparatus from photooxidative damage.
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According to NCERT, the phase of the cell cycle during which DNA replication occurs is:
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Answer: B. S Phase
DNA replication takes place during the S (Synthesis) phase of interphase. Although the amount of DNA doubles, the chromosome number remains unchanged because sister chromatids remain attached.
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Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of stages in interphase?
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Answer: C. G₁ → S → G₂
Interphase consists of G₁ phase (cell growth), S phase (DNA replication) and G₂ phase (preparation for mitosis) in the sequence G₁ → S → G₂.
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Which of the following carbohydrates is the most abundant organic compound present on Earth?
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Answer: B. Cellulose
Cellulose is the most abundant organic compound on Earth. It is a structural polysaccharide present in the cell walls of plants and consists of β-D-glucose units.
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Which statement correctly distinguishes starch from cellulose?
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Answer: B. Starch contains α-glucose whereas cellulose contains β-glucose.
Starch is composed of α-D-glucose units, whereas cellulose consists of β-D-glucose units. This difference in linkage is responsible for their distinct structures and functions.
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According to Whittaker's five kingdom classification, which kingdom includes all prokaryotic organisms?
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Answer: C. Monera
R.H. Whittaker placed all prokaryotic organisms in Kingdom Monera. This kingdom includes bacteria, cyanobacteria and mycoplasma.
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Which one of the following was NOT used by R.H. Whittaker as a criterion for the five kingdom classification?
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Answer: D. Blood vascular system
Whittaker's classification was based on criteria such as cell structure, body organisation, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationships. Blood vascular system was not one of the criteria.
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Match the following. List I P. Apical meristem Q. Intercalary meristem R. Lateral meristem S. Permanent tissue List II 1. Secondary growth 2. Differentiated tissue 3. Increase in plant length 4. Regrowth of grasses Choose the correct option.
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Answer: A. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
Apical meristems bring about primary growth, intercalary meristems help grasses regrow, lateral meristems are responsible for secondary growth and permanent tissues are differentiated tissues.
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Which one of the following simple permanent tissues is composed of living cells with unevenly thickened cell walls at the corners?
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Answer: B. Collenchyma
Collenchyma consists of living elongated cells with uneven thickening of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin at the corners, providing mechanical support and flexibility.
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Glycolysis takes place in which of the following cellular locations?
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Answer: B. Cytoplasm (cytosol)
Glycolysis is the first stage of respiration and occurs in the cytoplasm (cytosol) of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
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The term 'biodiversity' refers to:
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Answer: C. The diversity among genes, species and ecosystems
Biodiversity refers to the variety and variability of life at genetic, species and ecosystem levels. It encompasses all forms of living organisms and their interactions.
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Two forests contain the same number of plant species. However, Forest A has high genetic variation within each species, whereas Forest B has very little genetic variation. Which forest possesses greater biodiversity?
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Answer: A. Forest A
Biodiversity includes genetic diversity in addition to species diversity. Greater genetic variation within species contributes to higher overall biodiversity.
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Which of the following is an essential macronutrient required by plants?
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Answer: C. Nitrogen
Nitrogen is a primary macronutrient required by plants in large quantities. It is an essential constituent of amino acids, proteins, nucleic acids and chlorophyll.
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A plant grown in nutrient solution develops chlorosis mainly in older leaves, while younger leaves remain green. Which deficiency is most likely responsible?
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Answer: B. Nitrogen
Nitrogen is a mobile element. During deficiency, it is translocated from older leaves to younger tissues, causing chlorosis first in the older leaves.
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Which of the following characteristics is unique to bryophytes among the given plant groups?
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Answer: C. Water is essential for fertilization
Bryophytes are known as the amphibians of the plant kingdom because they require water for fertilization due to the motility of male gametes.
Chemistry
25 questions
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The mass of 3.011 × 10^23 molecules of NH3 is:
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Answer: A. 8.5 g
3.011 × 10^23 molecules = 0.5 mol. Molar mass of NH3 = 17 g mol⁻¹. Mass = 0.5 × 17 = 8.5 g.
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How many hydrogen atoms are present in 0.2 mol of CH4?
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Answer: B. 4.816 × 10^23
0.2 mol CH4 contains 4 × 0.2 = 0.8 mol H atoms. Number of H atoms = 0.8 × 6.022 × 10^23 = 4.816 × 10^23.
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The formal charge on carbon in the cyanide ion (CN−) is:
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Answer: A. -1
For CN−, the Lewis structure is :C≡N:. Formal charge on carbon = 4 − 2 − (6/2) = −1, while nitrogen has a formal charge of 0.
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A gas occupies 600 mL at 27°C. What will be its volume at 127°C if pressure remains constant?
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Answer: C. 800 mL
Using Charles' law, V1/T1 = V2/T2. T1 = 300 K, T2 = 400 K. Therefore, V2 = (600 × 400)/300 = 800 mL.
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How many of the following are correct IUPAC names? (i) Methanamine (ii) Ethanamine (iii) Benzenamine (iv) Methylamine
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Answer: C. 3
Methanamine, ethanamine and benzenamine are IUPAC names. Methylamine is the common name.
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Which one of the following is a condensation polymer?
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Answer: C. Dacron
Dacron (PET) is formed by condensation polymerisation of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid.
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How many of the following are condensation polymers? (i) Nylon-6,6 (ii) Dacron (iii) Bakelite (iv) PVC
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Answer: C. 3
Nylon-6,6, Dacron and Bakelite are condensation polymers, whereas PVC is an addition polymer.
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Which of the following observations could NOT be explained by Thomson's atomic model?
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Answer: C. Existence of a small, dense, positively charged nucleus.
Thomson's plum pudding model assumed positive charge was uniformly distributed throughout the atom. It could not explain Rutherford's discovery of a small, dense nucleus.
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Which one of the following electronic configurations corresponds to an element placed in Period 4 but NOT in the p-block?
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Answer: B. [Ar]3d⁵4s²
The configuration [Ar]3d⁵4s² belongs to manganese, a Period 4 d-block element. The other three configurations belong to Period 4 p-block elements.
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The total number of lone pairs present in the Lewis structure of HCl is:
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Answer: B. 3
Hydrogen has no lone pairs. Chlorine has seven valence electrons, forms one single bond with hydrogen, and retains three lone pairs.
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A fixed mass of gas occupies 8.0 L at 2 atm. If the pressure is reduced to 0.5 atm at constant temperature, the final volume will be:
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Answer: C. 32 L
Using Boyle's law, P1V1 = P2V2. Therefore, V2 = (2 × 8)/0.5 = 32 L.
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Which one of the following reactions is not a redox reaction?
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Answer: A. CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
In the thermal decomposition of CaCO₃, the oxidation states of Ca (+2), C (+4) and O (−2) remain unchanged. Therefore, it is not a redox reaction.
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A gas enclosed in a perfectly insulated cylinder fitted with a frictionless movable piston is compressed rapidly by an external force. Which of the following is necessarily true immediately after compression?
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Answer: A. q = 0 and w > 0
A perfectly insulated cylinder is an adiabatic system, so q = 0. Compression means work is done on the system; according to the chemistry sign convention, w is positive.
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An element X belongs to Group 16 of the p-block. Which of the following correctly represents its valence shell electronic configuration?
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Answer: C. ns²np⁴
Group 16 elements possess the general valence shell electronic configuration ns²np⁴.
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Which hydrocarbon gives a yellow luminous flame due to its high carbon content?
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Answer: C. Benzene
Aromatic hydrocarbons such as benzene burn with a yellow smoky flame because of their relatively high carbon content.
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For the reaction A + B ⇌ C, the equilibrium concentrations are [A] = 2 M, [B] = 3 M and [C] = 12 M. The value of Kc is:
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Answer: B. 2
Kc = [C]/([A][B]) = 12/(2 × 3) = 2.
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Assertion (A): Alcohols undergo dehydration in the presence of concentrated H₂SO₄ to form alkenes. Reason (R): Concentrated H₂SO₄ acts as a dehydrating agent by removing a molecule of water from the alcohol.
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Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
On heating with concentrated H₂SO₄ (about 443 K), alcohols lose a molecule of water to form alkenes. The acid acts as a dehydrating agent.
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Which of the following compounds undergoes the Cannizzaro reaction?
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Answer: C. HCHO
Formaldehyde does not contain an α-hydrogen atom and therefore undergoes the Cannizzaro reaction.
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Which reagent converts benzenediazonium chloride into chlorobenzene?
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Answer: B. CuCl/HCl
Benzenediazonium chloride reacts with cuprous chloride in hydrochloric acid (Sandmeyer reaction) to form chlorobenzene.
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For a solute undergoing association in solution, the van't Hoff factor (i) is:
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Answer: C. Less than 1
Association decreases the number of solute particles in solution; therefore, the van't Hoff factor becomes less than one.
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According to the Nernst equation, at 298 K the value of (2.303RT/F) is approximately:
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Answer: B. 0.0591 V
At 298 K, 2.303RT/F = 0.0591 V. Therefore, E = E° − (0.0591/n) log Q.
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An elementary reaction involves one molecule of A and two molecules of B reacting simultaneously. Its molecularity is:
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Answer: C. 3
Total reacting species = 1(A) + 2(B) = 3. Hence, the molecularity is 3.
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The actinoid series involves the progressive filling of which orbitals?
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Answer: C. 5f
The actinoids are characterized by the progressive filling of the 5f orbitals.
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How many of the following reagents can convert alcohols into haloalkanes? (i) HCl (ii) SOCl₂ (iii) PBr₃ (iv) HI
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Answer: C. 4
All four reagents (HCl, SOCl₂, PBr₃ and HI) can convert alcohols into the corresponding haloalkanes under suitable conditions.
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Assertion (A): Werner proposed that metal ions in coordination compounds possess two types of valencies. Reason (R): Primary valency is ionisable, whereas secondary valency is non-ionisable and directional.
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Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
According to Werner's coordination theory, primary valency corresponds to oxidation state and is ionisable, whereas secondary valency corresponds to coordination number and is non-ionisable with definite geometry.
Physics
25 questions
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A particle moves from x = 4 m to x = -8 m. The displacement of the particle is:
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Answer: A. -12 m
Displacement equals final position minus initial position. Therefore displacement = -8 - 4 = -12 m. The negative sign indicates displacement in the negative x-direction.
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The dimensional formula of surface tension is:
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Answer: A. [MT⁻²]
Surface tension = Force/Length = [MLT⁻²]/[L] = [MT⁻²].
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Which of the following is a vector quantity?
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Answer: D. Displacement
Displacement has both magnitude and direction and is therefore a vector quantity. Distance, speed and work are scalars.
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A 5 kg block rests on a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. The minimum horizontal force required to start the motion of the block is (g = 10 m/s²):
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Answer: C. 20 N
Maximum static friction = μsN = 0.4 × 5 × 10 = 20 N. Motion begins when applied force exceeds this value.
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A force of 50 N acts on a body and displaces it by 4 m in the direction of the force. The work done is:
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Answer: C. 200 J
Work done = F×s×cosθ = 50×4×1 = 200 J.
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A wheel rotates through an angle of 20 rad in 4 s. Its average angular velocity is:
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Answer: C. 5 rad/s
Average angular velocity = angular displacement/time = 20/4 = 5 rad/s.
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Two particles of masses 2 kg and 3 kg are placed at x = 0 m and x = 10 m respectively. The position of the center of mass is:
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Answer: C. 6 m
xCM = (m₁x₁ + m₂x₂)/(m₁ + m₂) = (2×0 + 3×10)/5 = 6 m.
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The SI unit of coefficient of viscosity is:
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Answer: B. Pa·s
The SI unit of viscosity is pascal-second (Pa·s) or N·s/m².
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A satellite is orbiting Earth at radius 2R from Earth's center. If its orbital speed is v, the escape speed from that orbit is:
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Answer: B. √2 v
At any orbital radius r, orbital speed = √(GM/r) and escape speed = √(2GM/r). Therefore ve = √2 v.
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A current of 5 A flows through a resistor of 4 Ω. The potential difference across the resistor is:
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Answer: B. 20 V
Using Ohm's law, V = IR = 5 × 4 = 20 V.
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A wire of length L and cross-sectional area A is stretched by a force F. If both the length and diameter of the wire are doubled while the same force acts, the strain produced becomes:
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Answer: A. One-fourth
Strain = stress/Y = (F/A)/Y. Doubling diameter makes area 4A. Stress becomes one-fourth, hence strain becomes one-fourth.
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A wave travels with a frequency of 250 Hz and a wavelength of 1.2 m. The speed of the wave is:
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Answer: C. 300 m/s
Wave speed is given by v = fλ = 250 × 1.2 = 300 m/s.
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An ideal gas undergoes an isothermal expansion from volume V to 4V at temperature T. If the work done is W, the heat absorbed by the gas is:
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Answer: C. W
For an ideal gas in an isothermal process, ΔU = 0. Therefore from the first law, Q = W.
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The magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet are directed:
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Answer: B. From South pole to North pole
Magnetic field lines form closed loops. Outside the magnet they go from North to South, while inside the magnet they return from South to North.
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The SI unit of capacitance is:
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Answer: C. Farad
The SI unit of capacitance is farad (F), where 1 farad = 1 coulomb per volt.
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The frequency of an AC source is 60 Hz. Its time period is:
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Answer: C. 0.0167 s
Time period T = 1/f = 1/60 ≈ 0.0167 s.
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Two identical point charges are placed 20 cm apart in vacuum. If the electrostatic force between them is doubled without changing the medium, the new separation between the charges should be:
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Answer: B. 20/√2 cm
According to Coulomb's law, F ∝ 1/r². If the force is doubled, the new distance r' = r/√2 = 20/√2 cm.
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The SI unit of angular frequency is:
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Answer: B. rad s⁻¹
Angular frequency (ω) is measured in radians per second (rad s⁻¹).
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The SI unit of magnetic flux is:
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Answer: C. Weber
The SI unit of magnetic flux is weber (Wb). One weber equals one tesla metre squared.
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A proton enters a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B with velocity v making an angle of 60° with the magnetic field. The radius of the helical path described by the proton is:
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Answer: C. √3mv/2eB
Only the component of velocity perpendicular to the magnetic field produces circular motion. v⊥ = v sin60° = √3v/2. Hence r = mv⊥/eB = √3mv/(2eB).
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The power of a convex lens of focal length 50 cm is:
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Answer: B. +2 D
Power P = 1/f (in metres). Here, f = 0.5 m. Therefore, P = 1/0.5 = +2 D.
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The electric field and magnetic field vectors in an electromagnetic wave are:
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Answer: B. Perpendicular to each other and to the direction of propagation
Electromagnetic waves are transverse. The electric field, magnetic field and direction of propagation are mutually perpendicular.
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Assertion (A): Huygens' principle successfully explains the laws of reflection and refraction of light. Reason (R): Every point on a wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets which spread in all directions with the speed of light in that medium.
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Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Huygens' principle assumes that every point on a wavefront behaves as a source of secondary wavelets. Using the common tangent to these wavelets leads directly to the laws of reflection and refraction.
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Which one of the following logic gates is called the 'universal gate'?
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Answer: C. NAND gate
A NAND gate is called a universal gate because any logic circuit can be implemented using only NAND gates.
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Assertion (A): Rutherford's α-particle scattering experiment established that most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in a very small central region. Reason (R): A very small fraction of α-particles suffered large-angle scattering or rebounded after striking the nucleus.
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Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Most α-particles passed undeflected, indicating that the atom is mostly empty space. The few particles that were scattered through large angles revealed the presence of a tiny, massive, positively charged nucleus.
Zoology
25 questions
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The basement membrane underlying epithelial tissue is destroyed experimentally. Which immediate consequence is most likely to occur?
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Answer: A. Loss of epithelial attachment and support
The basement membrane anchors epithelial cells to underlying connective tissue and provides structural support. Damage leads to loss of attachment and tissue integrity.
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A connective tissue contains chondrocytes enclosed within lacunae and lacks blood vessels. Which property best explains its slow healing following injury?
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Answer: C. Avascular nature
Cartilage is avascular, so nutrients and repair factors reach cells only through diffusion. This significantly slows healing compared to vascular tissues.
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Which of the following diseases is diagnosed using the Widal test?
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Answer: B. Typhoid
The Widal test detects antibodies against Salmonella typhi and is commonly used in the diagnosis of typhoid fever.
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Which cells of the pancreatic islets secrete glucagon?
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Answer: A. Alpha cells
Alpha (α) cells of the islets of Langerhans secrete glucagon, which raises blood glucose by promoting glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.
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Which of the following best differentiates a malignant tumour from a benign tumour?
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Answer: B. Ability to invade surrounding tissues and metastasize
Malignant tumours invade neighbouring tissues and spread to distant organs through metastasis, whereas benign tumours remain localized and are generally encapsulated.
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A patient has complete destruction of the atrioventricular (AV) valves while the semilunar valves remain intact. Which event will occur during ventricular systole?
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Answer: B. Blood will regurgitate from the ventricles into the atria.
The tricuspid and bicuspid (mitral) valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular systole. Damage to these valves causes regurgitation into the atria.
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A man has normal testosterone levels but is infertile because spermatozoa are absent in the semen. Examination reveals complete destruction of Sertoli cells while Leydig cells remain functional. Which function has been primarily affected?
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Answer: B. Nourishment and support of developing germ cells during spermatogenesis
Sertoli cells provide nourishment, protection and support to developing spermatogenic cells and regulate spermatogenesis. Leydig cells produce testosterone, so testosterone levels remain normal.
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A multicellular animal possesses a cellular level of organization, intracellular digestion, numerous pores in the body wall and a canal system. Which feature alone distinguishes it from all eumetazoans?
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Answer: B. Presence of choanocytes
Choanocytes (collar cells) are characteristic of phylum Porifera and are responsible for water current generation and filter feeding. Eumetazoans lack these specialized cells.
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A researcher inserts a eukaryotic gene directly into a bacterial expression vector without removing introns. Although transformation is successful, no functional protein is produced. What is the most appropriate explanation?
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Answer: B. Bacteria lack the machinery required to remove introns from pre-mRNA.
Prokaryotes do not possess spliceosomes for RNA splicing. Therefore, eukaryotic genes containing introns cannot be correctly expressed unless cDNA is used.
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Which hormone is secreted by the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex?
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Answer: B. Cortisol
The zona fasciculata is the middle layer of the adrenal cortex and secretes glucocorticoids, mainly cortisol.
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Which of the following contraceptive methods primarily prevents fertilization by acting as a physical barrier between sperm and ovum?
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Answer: B. Condom
Condoms are barrier methods that prevent sperm from entering the female reproductive tract. They also reduce the transmission of sexually transmitted infections.
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A pea plant with genotype Tt is self-pollinated. What is the probability of obtaining a dwarf offspring?
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Answer: B. 25%
A monohybrid cross between Tt × Tt produces TT, Tt, Tt and tt. Only tt is dwarf, giving a probability of 1/4 (25%).
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A child suffering from Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency receives gene therapy by introducing a functional ADA gene into cultured lymphocytes. The treatment initially improves immunity but repeated treatments are required. What is the most appropriate explanation?
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Answer: B. Lymphocytes have a limited lifespan and are gradually replaced.
In ex vivo gene therapy, functional ADA genes are introduced into lymphocytes. Since lymphocytes are short-lived, repeated infusions are necessary. Permanent correction requires gene transfer into bone marrow stem cells at an early embryonic stage.
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Which one of the following statements correctly distinguishes life span from reproduction?
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Answer: B. Life span refers to the period between birth and natural death, whereas reproduction is the biological process of producing offspring.
Life span is the duration from birth to natural death, whereas reproduction is the process by which organisms produce offspring. Reproduction is not essential for the survival of an individual but is essential for the continuity of the species.
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A small population of birds colonizes an isolated island after a cyclone. Over thousands of generations, they evolve into several species with different beak shapes adapted to distinct food sources. Which combination of evolutionary mechanisms best explains this observation?
Show answer
Answer: B. Adaptive radiation driven by natural selection
Adaptive radiation is the evolution of multiple species from a common ancestor occupying different ecological niches. Darwin's finches are the classic NCERT example, with natural selection driving adaptation.
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Which of the following types of neurons carries impulses from receptors to the central nervous system?
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Answer: B. Sensory (Afferent) neuron
Sensory (afferent) neurons transmit nerve impulses from receptors to the CNS. Motor neurons carry impulses away from the CNS to effectors.
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Assertion (A): The loop of Henle is essential for producing hyperosmotic urine. Reason (R): It establishes a corticomedullary osmotic gradient through the counter current mechanism.
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Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
The loop of Henle functions as a counter current multiplier, establishing the medullary osmotic gradient that enables water reabsorption and formation of concentrated urine.
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A mutation changes the sequence of a single nucleotide in the β-globin gene, resulting in substitution of valine for glutamic acid. Which type of mutation is this?
Show answer
Answer: C. Point mutation
Sickle-cell anaemia is caused by a point mutation in the β-globin gene, where a single nucleotide substitution changes the codon GAG (glutamic acid) to GUG (valine).
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A farmer inoculates legume seeds with Rhizobium but also applies a large amount of nitrogen fertilizer throughout the growing season. Which outcome is most likely?
Show answer
Answer: B. Root nodulation and nitrogen fixation will be suppressed due to readily available combined nitrogen.
When sufficient combined nitrogen is available in the soil, legumes reduce nodulation and biological nitrogen fixation because maintaining symbiosis becomes energetically unnecessary.
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According to NCERT, which biodiversity hotspot includes India's Nicobar Islands?
Show answer
Answer: C. Sundaland
The Sundaland biodiversity hotspot includes the Nicobar Islands of India, whereas the Andaman Islands are not included.
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Assertion (A): During quiet inspiration, the diaphragm contributes more to the increase in thoracic volume than the external intercostal muscles. Reason (R): Contraction of the diaphragm increases the vertical diameter of the thoracic cavity.
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Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
The diaphragm is the principal muscle of inspiration. Its contraction flattens the diaphragm, increasing the vertical diameter of the thoracic cavity and lowering intrapulmonary pressure.
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A skeletal muscle fibre is experimentally treated with a drug that completely blocks the release of Ca²⁺ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum without affecting ATP production or action potential generation. Which of the following events will still occur?
Show answer
Answer: C. Propagation of action potential along the sarcolemma and T-tubules
Action potentials can still propagate along the sarcolemma and T-tubules. However, without Ca²⁺ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, troponin is not activated, tropomyosin continues to block the active sites, cross-bridge formation does not occur and contraction fails.
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An orchid growing on the branch of a mango tree is an example of:
Show answer
Answer: B. Commensalism
The orchid benefits by obtaining support while the mango tree is neither harmed nor benefited, making this a classic example of commensalism.
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Assertion (A): Decomposers are indispensable components of an ecosystem. Reason (R): They recycle nutrients by breaking down dead organic matter into inorganic substances that can be reused by producers.
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Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Decomposers such as bacteria and fungi mineralise organic matter, returning nutrients to the environment and maintaining nutrient cycling in ecosystems.
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Assertion (A): Electrostatic precipitators are highly efficient in removing particulate matter from industrial exhaust. Reason (R): They electrically charge dust particles and collect them on oppositely charged plates.
Show answer
Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Electrostatic precipitators impart an electrical charge to suspended particles, which are then attracted to collecting plates, removing over 99% of particulate matter.
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FAQ
NEET MCQs — frequently asked questions
What are NEET MCQs?
Multiple-choice questions designed to help students practise concepts covered in the NEET syllabus.
Can I practise Biology, Physics and Chemistry?
Yes. Practice on this page is organised around all three major NEET subjects.
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